Discussion:Interest paid for loan to S corp
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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Interest paid for loan to S corp
| 8 February 2010 | |
| A shareholder borrows money from a bank which he then lends to his S corp. Later the S corp pays interest to the shareholder who turns around and pays the interest to the bank. Obviously the shareholder will report the interest paid to him from the corp on his Sch B. Is it correct for the shareholder to report the interest he paid on Sch E, i.e. as an adjustment to the income reported by the Sub S? | |
| February 8, 2010 | |
| We've had this discussion before. I just pay the interest to the bank from the Corp and deduct it there. If there's a 1098 reported to the s/h, then I'd enter it in and out on the 1040 for reporting. | |
| February 8, 2010 | |
| Obviously, you've got basis reporting problems that way if there are losses, tho'. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 8 February 2010 |
| I'm pretty sure there's only one correct way to report this.
The interest income goes on Schedule B and the investment interest expense deduction goes on Schedule A via Form 4952. | |
| 8 February 2010 | |
| Nope. Active interest expense is deductible on Schedule E, along with income or losses from pass-through entities of trades or businesses in which the taxpayer materially participates.
Interest expense on debt proceeds allocated under Reg. 1.163-8T to a contribution to the capital of a passthrough entity shall be allocated using any reasonable method. Reasonable methods for this purpose ordinarily include allocating the debt……..” Notice 89-35 also provides “……Individuals should report allowable interest expense paid or incurred in connection with debt-financed acquisitions on either Schedule E or Schedule A of Form 1040, depending on the type of expenditure to which the interest is allocated. IRS Tracing Rules for Interest Deductions Technically the interest gets allocated among the S Corp assets, so some of it could end up elsewhere. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 8 February 2010 |
| I don't think you can get theah from heah.
What we've got here is a *loan to* the S corporation. I think - I'm mighty sure - that Notice 89-35 applies to purchases of stock and contributions to capital, and not to a loan. | |
| 8 February 2010 | |
| Why?. Because an accountant made a journal entry that way? And would he have done it that way if he was competent? Corp needed capital. Shareholder borrowed money to provide it. You want to book that as a loan from shareholder and then make an excuse as to why shareholder has no interest deduction that's fine by me...♫ | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 9 February 2010 |
| I don't think I gave up an interest deduction.
At the risk of repeating myself: I'm pretty sure there's only one correct way to report this. The [shareholder's] interest income goes on Schedule B and the [shareholder's] investment interest expense deduction goes on Schedule A via Form 4952. | |
| 9 February 2010 | |
| And if they don't itemize, they don't get it? Why is a loan from shareholder the "correct" way to reflect an infusion of capital into an S Corp? | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 9 February 2010 |
| Nobody said "a loan from shareholder [is] the "correct" way to reflect an infusion of capital into an S Corp," Dennis. The OP said it was a loan to the corporations and I said that I think there's only one correct way to claim the deduction for the interest on the shareholder's tax return.
Did your team lose the Super Bowl or something? | |
| 9 February 2010 | |
| I agree with Harry - Interest expense reported by s-corp, picked up by shareholder on sch b and deducted as investment interest on sch A via form 4952. | |
| 9 February 2010 | |
| The scenario of Sch B/4952 is what I was leaning towards, which obviously is not as "nice" since AMT will come into the picture.
Is there any reason why such interest income would not be considered "investment income" since the debt has not been incurred to purchase an investment, but rather to loan to a closely held business ? Thanks to everyone for their comments. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 9 February 2010 |
| I'm not so sure about the *certainty* of an AMT problem.
Where does the adjustment arise? In the net investment income that's the Section 163(d) limitation, and any AMT difference that arises there? | |
| 9 February 2010 | |
| "Because an accountant made a journal entry that way? And would he have done it that way if he was competent?" "Why is a loan from shareholder the "correct" way to reflect an infusion of capital into an S Corp? "
It is probably worth discussing with the client whether the "investment" is a Loan or BUT, even though the title to Section IV is "TREATMENT OF DEBT OF OWNERS OF PASSTHROUGH ENTITIES ALLOCATED TO EXPENDITURES FOR CONTRIBUTIONS TO OR PURCHASES OF INTERESTS IN SUCH ENTITIES (DEBT-FINANCED ACQUISITIONS)"; the very first paragraph under A. Allocation Rules discusses "In the case of debt proceeds allocated under section 1.163-8T to the purchase of an interest in a passthrough entity (other than by way of a contribution to the capital of the entity), . . ". How does one purchase an interest without a contribution to capital? Does this refer to purchases of shares? Or is there way to loan funds and/while purchasing an interest in a passthrough entity? For example,purchase a share for a dollar and loan the S corp $100,000. I can understand where it could be interpreted to allow a deduction to AGI for interest on a loan; the proceeds of which went into an S corporation. Maybe something to talk about during the audit and, at least, avoid penalties. Unless there is a court case about this out there. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 9 February 2010 |
| The OP wanted an answer to the "loan to S corp" question. I hope he got it.
Now, there are also at least a couple of *other* ways to "inject funds" [I choose not even to suggest that this term be defined] into an S corporation, as well as a purchase of shares of stock in the corporation, none of which are *loans* to the corporation. Some posters have suggested that these are all pretty much the same so the same rules should apply, close enough, it's six of one a dozen the other, it'll be close to the same result under certain conditions (which may or may not apply), and anyway, "the accountant who booked it that way is incompetent". I don't agree. Try this f'rinstance: It's *not* a single-shareholder S corporation, and one shareholder would like to borrow some money and put it into the corporation, but the other shareholders veto his attempt to have additional shares issued to him for this additional "injection of funds". But they will allow him to lend the money to the corporation, and there are mutually acceptable terms for the loan's interest rate and repayment terms. What's the next logical place to go? Tell the shareholders you don't want them to do what they've agreed to do because .. because ...? Let's play this out. It's a scenario that arises over and over and over. No, it's not happy hour yet. | |
| 9 February 2010 | |
| Harry - My team has never won the Super Bowl. However, they did win NFL championships in 1964, 1955, and 1954, and also in 1924 as the Cleveland Bulldogs, if it's of any value.
And I agree with your response to the original OP's question. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 10 February 2010 |
| 1924... Yeah, I think I mighta been there.
Just kidding! I was in Berlin in 1924. | |
| 10 February 2010 | |
| Thanks for all the input guys, except for the ones about dull, slow football. Yawnnnnnnn. | |


